Okay greater question, if places like the UK are just rentier states, where the hell does all the wealth go after a revolution? How is that determined in the first place?
Im not too well versed on economics, so can someone explain?
That wealth is basically all located overseas and in various financial bubbles. After revolution plow through financial system most of it will disappear because it don’t exist in reality in the first place.
While reparations will still be in order, the lack of Imperial hijacking will be a huge relief in itself. I also assume reparations will be a gradual process, building up over time in investment.
Okay greater question, if places like the UK are just rentier states, where the hell does all the wealth go after a revolution? How is that determined in the first place?
Im not too well versed on economics, so can someone explain?
That wealth is basically all located overseas and in various financial bubbles. After revolution plow through financial system most of it will disappear because it don’t exist in reality in the first place.
Okay thats what I thought.
While reparations will still be in order, the lack of Imperial hijacking will be a huge relief in itself. I also assume reparations will be a gradual process, building up over time in investment.
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