So this is a request for a ML explanation of the 1917 Russian constituent assembly election. I’ve seen it said many times that basically there was an election after the Tsar was overthrow and Lenin lost, so then he said that the election doesn’t count.
I’m sure there is more to this story and am hoping there are some good resources about this or if someone could explain what happened.
Are elections in the US today in any way truly democratic or representative of the will of the people? Just think about what kind of elected representatives the US has. Just because you won a vote doesn’t mean you actually stand for what most people want. Elections in bourgeois democracy are a farce, they over-represent the petty bourgeoisie and under-represent the poor and working class who often don’t even vote. Lenin did the right thing in immediately as soon as the Bolsheviks took power taking away the right to vote of all the bourgeois classes. The Soviets were the real representation of the will of the masses of workers and peasants, not some bourgeois “Constituent Assembly”. It is good that it was dissolved, you cannot have Dictatorship of the Proletariat with a bourgeois parliament full of servants of the bourgeoisie and socdem reformists (Mensheviks and SR’s).