The American media loves saying that, but does it really have a right to exist? Does an apartheid colonizing regime have the right to exist in someone else’s land?
The American media loves saying that, but does it really have a right to exist? Does an apartheid colonizing regime have the right to exist in someone else’s land?
No it fucking doesn’t? A random ass ancestor owning land isn’t something you can pin on a random person in the modern day.
What does that signify? Plus like I mentioned before, the vast majority are dirt poor subsistence farmers playing with second rate dirt while mega plantations owned by the bourgeoisie hog hundreds of square miles of prime land that’s operated by literal slaves. Those subsistence farmers aren’t really the vanguard of the settler colonial force.
But imagine someone came up to you today and said, “Well it seems like one of your ancestors 250 years ago simply existed in a settler colonial area, even though they were dirt fucking poor, and we don’t have any evidence or documentation. Prepare for reeducation!” I’m sure you’d love that?
slavery “ended” only 160 years ago in the united states. Convict leasing wasn’t fully abolished until 1942. The 13th amendment allows slavery as punishment for a crime, and prisoners are paid a pittance or not at all for labor they perform.
The genocide of indigenous people is still happening.
american society is incredibly racist (among other structural prejudices) to this day and you are an ignorant, reactionary liberal.
Ok? Everything you said is true. Why are you making it seem like I love slavery or think that slavery and it’s consequences magically disappeared?
Thanks for strawmanning my entire argument.
This entire conversation was based on the fact that you can’t cleanly divide American society as colonized and colonizer except for very niche cases, and that if you can’t make that distinction why is it a prime decider of who gets thrown in reeducation?
Thanks for the name calling though!
where did I do this exactly?