• Shrike502
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    1 year ago

    If the “colony” claim for Russia is due to Ivan IV’s conquests (as it usually is, seen people on Sino screech about Yermak and Ivan), then logically the “non-colonized” Russia should include the original Muscovy/Tsardom holdings of the pre-Siberia period. Which would include a good chunk of Ukraine, a chunk of Baltics and other funny places.

    But these chucklefucks never go there, do they. Chucklefucks.

    • COMHASH
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      1 year ago

      Also poland was under Russian empire right, I mean before the Ivan the grozny conquered central Asiatic lands?

      • PolandIsAStateOfMind
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        1 year ago

        No, in XVII century Poland-Lithuania was occupying a lot of ethnically Russian lands and even actually invading rest of Russia, Poland lost chunks of land to them only in the 3 partitions at the end of XVIII century.