I was just reading the Wikipedia article above and started to wonder if after losing WW I to England the Ottoman Empire offered Palestinans (or whatever easy the name of people living in this area at that time) to come to live in the post-WWI Ottoman Empire, and if it was made clear for them that If they didn’t they would not have protection from the State.
Please, write down the sources for facts in your answers.
My question might be totally misformulated, as I am no expert on the topic. For instance, I guess that “Ottoman Empire” ceased to exist and broke down into one or more smaller State(s)/Country(is). In this case, supposing it became Turkey, I should ask if Turkey offered Palestinians to come to turkey instead of living in a Stateless area with a dangerous power vacuum. Or if the closed State to it was Jordan, if Jordan made the same offer to Palestinians. Or even if England said to Palestinians they could keep living there forever.
I am getting the impression Palestinians have been constantly cheated by the States which controlled the region and my question will help to know to which extent my suspicion is wrong or not.
There are probably more implicit errors in my question, but my knowledge is not enough even to estimate those errors.
There was no Ottoman Empire after WW1. They collapsed and were occupied by the Entente, who then split the empire up finally in 1920. There essentially was no ottoman government.
None of the successor states cared about Palestine. They had no reason to, and it was entire the problem of the British and French at that point.
