I think I know the answer but just trying to get more definitive. It’s been difficult for me to see the difference. It seems to be the same ideology at the end of the day. The only difference seems to be that Zionism (most forms) stay localized rather than claim racial superiority for the whole world. But maybe not?
Seems like a bit of a chicken vs the egg scenario. I get that “fascism” might have a specific scientific definition, but does it ultimately matter if Zionism is only achievable through the removal of Palestinian people from their land?
Also, the ambitiousness/ the lack thereof of the Zionist regime doesn’t really seem as important in determining whether zionism is inherently fascist or not. At that point, we’d be left with splitting hairs about every invasion/ foreign assassination/ destabilization Israeli has carried out.
I mean, Israel has outlawed Jewish-Arab antiwar rallies as well, and they do repress the Antizionist Jews in Israel. They’re not necesarilly “proletariat” party rallies/ bases, but they are ultimately more progressive than what is currently in the current regime. Even then, I’m sure communists in Israel-proper get visits from the IDF we don’t hear about.
Isntreal, as a bourgeois settler nation has basically no proletariat to repress.
If fascism is simple [settler?] colonialism then it’s existed since 1492. I think it’s worth making some sort of distinction. There is no “scientific definition” but there is surely some distinction, like reviving imperial past and suppressing the proletariat (as discussed). I’m wondering whether the early Jewish god backed genocides in the Old Testament/Torah could be considered parallel to pre WWI Germany.