Pretty much asking general questions about the “Holodomor.” Was it a deliberate genocide? What factors contributed to the famine? Why is it seem as a deliberate genocide today?
Please provide sources to every claim you make. Cheers.
Pretty much asking general questions about the “Holodomor.” Was it a deliberate genocide? What factors contributed to the famine? Why is it seem as a deliberate genocide today?
Please provide sources to every claim you make. Cheers.
Hmm Wikipedia says “The word was used in print in the 1930s in Ukrainian diaspora publications in Czechoslovakia as Haladamor” but it links to a book that I can’t access.
Otherwise it seems you’re right, the word started being used in the 80s.