In The State and Revolution, Lenin (and Engels, whom he is quoting) disagrees with communists using “People’s State” or “Free People’s State” as a programme goal.
If I understand correctly, this is because a) it creates a misunderstanding on the final phase of communism, which is stateless and b) it goes against the Marxist understanding of states as forces of oppression. On the other hand, it seems logical to me that a state following the dictatorship of the proletariat principle would call itself “People’s”, since the proletariat is the majority.
So, I’ve been wondering if the existing socialist states have an official line about this, or if there’s a consensus amongst M-Ls.
The stated reasons are valid both before and after the revolution, no?
idk if I’m communicating clearly. I mean there feels like a difference between:
It feels to me like the issue is making an empty call for a “People’s state” a programmatic goal, and not the actual naming bit.
As a goal it’s pretty meaningless sounding.
I see your point; seems like there isn’t a contradiction here, then.