Take this comment for instance. The OP posts a quote by Marx saying basically what Lenin said over 65 years later in Left-Wing Communism: bourgeois elections should be used by a communist party to advance revolutionary platforms.
The commenter goes on to say that Marx and Lenin’s words are invalidated because Lenin participated in Duma’s, basically parroting socdem and revisionist excuses to vote for "the lesser evil, completely ignoring the above that communists should participate in bourgeois political structures as a communist party, not saying vote for which strain of reactionary ideology you think is best.
The comment below it brings up these points, but the fact that the first is upvoted this highly is concerning, especially given how strict the sub usually is in maintaining an ML line.
That comment is pretty bad. I don’t think the direct implication of the OP is to equate the two elections but to.point out the similarities between them, which from the excerpt seem extremely striking.
Then the commenter just throws around stuff about understanding material conditions. Did they do that? Did they find a good reason to not take that message to heart? We will never know because they will never tell.