Early in the thread, Stallman insists that the “most plausible scenario” is that Epstein’s underage victims were “entirely willing” while being trafficked. Stallman goes on to argue about the definition of “sexual assault,” “rape,” and whether they apply to Minsky and Giuffre’s deposition statement that she was forced to have sex with him.
It seems to me that he is far too bothered by the terminology. “Sexual abuse” also works without an “assault” and it makes sense for a court to differentiate between the two. But I would expect a lawyer to get lost in the terminology, but I don’t know why Stallmann is so interested in it.
If Stallman wants me to believe that he’s naive enough to believe that victims of sex trafficking feigning consent is the same as consensual sex, I have to question all of his claims
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https://www.vice.com/en/article/9ke3ke/famed-computer-scientist-richard-stallman-described-epstein-victims-as-entirely-willing
Yeah nah, there’s only so much libertarian rhetoric I can take as a good faith arguments
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It seems to me that he is far too bothered by the terminology. “Sexual abuse” also works without an “assault” and it makes sense for a court to differentiate between the two. But I would expect a lawyer to get lost in the terminology, but I don’t know why Stallmann is so interested in it.
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If Stallman wants me to believe that he’s naive enough to believe that victims of sex trafficking feigning consent is the same as consensual sex, I have to question all of his claims
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