So, I was having a long discussion with my liberal dad, and he said the statement above: Zionists have claim to Israel because apparently Palestine was a former British colony and it was given to the Jews by the British. Also, that there was not such thing as the country of Palestine before that. He also mentioned that apparently, Palestinians have refused the 2-state solution and that apparently makes them the bad guys for October 7th.
It is all pure liberal bs, but I don’t know enough of the history of the occupation to debunk his claims thoroughly. Therefore, help debunking this would be appreciated.
What right do europeans thousands of miles away have to give or take Palestine? Same logic as the US Settler treatment of Indigenous people. 80%+ of Israeli Jews were European in 1948. Pure mental gymnastics. Zionists didn’t originate in Palestine, and Ancient Israelites living in the region thousands of years ago still doesn’t justify a Jewish only state, especially when the Palestinian people are descendants of the Jews who never left.