• ryathal@sh.itjust.works
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    12
    arrow-down
    1
    ·
    1 year ago

    Generally you only have a right to silence in self incrimination, just answering if the agreement was 24 or 42 likely wouldn’t apply.

    • ItsMeSpez@lemmy.world
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      15
      ·
      1 year ago

      What you really do here is play it dumb as hell. Oh, I’m being over-payed? Really? Wow.

      The key to keeping this up is not posting that you know about being over-payed and are doing nothing about it on the internet.

    • MystikIncarnate@lemmy.ca
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      3
      ·
      1 year ago

      Well, nobody can force you to speak, that’s something you’ll have to do willingly. So IMO, the right to silence is one of the things that is universal to existence, regardless of law.

      • RealJoL@feddit.de
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        8
        ·
        1 year ago

        Yes, but in a civil case this may turn the favours against you. Even though you may not incriminate yourself, the judge may rule for the other party, as there is no burden of proof, but only of probability.

        Of course, a paper contract especially ruling 42k in black and white will be of more weight than a verbal contract.

    • Ashelyn@lemmy.blahaj.zone
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      3
      ·
      1 year ago

      In a court of law, for sure. But for discussion between an employee and boss, I don’t think that works the same way. I don’t think your boss would have the right to compel speech out of you like that.

      Unless it works differently in the UK?