To be fair in a democracy the law should be what the majority agreed upon (directly or indirectly) to build a community. That should still be tempered by a well thought out constitution that prevents tyrannyby majority of course. If you don’t have such a system, I thing you have bigger problems to takle first.
So if they make a law opressing some people would doing something discriminatory against those people be less opressive because it’s legal now?
What?
They are asking if, according to your logic, slavery was not oppressive because it was legal.
Legality has nothing to do with fairness nor justice. Laws are a tool of control and most of them are oppressive
To be fair in a democracy the law should be what the majority agreed upon (directly or indirectly) to build a community. That should still be tempered by a well thought out constitution that prevents tyrannyby majority of course. If you don’t have such a system, I thing you have bigger problems to takle first.
We’re talking about laws made to protect people, not oppress them, comparing them to slavery being legal in the past is quite a stretch.