• Imnecomrade [none/use name]@hexbear.net
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    2 hours ago

    2(1 + 2) does imply multiplication: 2 * (1 + 2). The reason it counts as one term, as I noted below, is because it is inside a two-dimensional fraction which has implicit parathenses in the numerator, denominator, and the fraction itself. The first equation is actually ((6) / (2(1 + 2))). When a fraction is written in two dimensions instead of a single string, the division between the numerator and the denominator is supposed to be done last.

    The first equation is not 6 / 2(1 + 2). If it was, this means you get (6 / 2) * (1 + 2) as in the second equation, which means (1 + 2) is moved up to the numerator ((6(1+2)) / 2 = (6 / 2) * (1 + 2)), which means the two problems are not equal to each other. I believe this is the point of the “joke”.